Paul and the Last Days passages in Hebrews, for himself or us?

Does Paul misunderstood the coming of Christ to be in his time? Is that what he said in some places in the book of Hebrews? Does that not sound like that in the following phrases?

---“but now once in the end of the world has he appeared to put away sin”. Hebrews 9:25

Thus, Jesus the Eschatos

---“Has in these last days spoken to us through His son”.

Last days in the Greek here is eschaton. Hebrews 1:2

---“and the more so as you see the nearing of the day” Hebrews 10:25

---“for in a short while, He that will come will come and will not delay” Hebrews 10:37

Actually Hebrews 12:25-29 is the key to understand the sentences above.

There will be two eras: I and II. In I He spoke on earth and it shook and in II He is going to speak from Heaven and both earth and heaven is going to shake.


What does it mean?


Two Eschatons

I Eschaton of the Kingdom of Grace which was the last part of the 490 years of Daniel coming to an end in Stephen’s stoning in 34 AD but also highlight in Christ dying on the cross in 31 AD and baptized in 27 AD to speak to us as Paul is saying in Hebrews 1:2-3.


II Then there is also a future Eschaton of the Kingdom of Glory that is still at large. The 1260 years had to pass 1798, the 2300 years had to pass 1844. Only then living in the end of times or the last days, only then those who live then should be “the more so as you [living after 1798 and 1844] see the nearing of the day [eschaton of the kingdom of glory]”. Not Paul, not his readers in his own day but us living after 1798 and 1844.


Notice that Paul is citing Habakkuk 2:2-3 in Hebrews 10:37-38 and also Isaiah 26:20. This is a footnote of Paul for those who would live at the end of times after 1798 and 1844. That is what Habakkuk also had in mind. It was a special vision says the text in Habakkuk 2. It had to be an empire after the Holy Roman Empire that ended in 1798 and that empire was since 1776 the USA and its allies.