Paul and the
Last Days passages in Hebrews, for himself or us? Does Paul
misunderstood the coming of Christ to be in his time? Is that what he said in
some places in the book of Hebrews? Does that not sound like that in the
following phrases? ---“but now
once in the end of the world has he appeared to put away sin”. Hebrews 9:25 Thus, Jesus the
Eschatos ---“Has in
these last days spoken to us through His son”. Last days in the
Greek here is eschaton. Hebrews 1:2 ---“and the
more so as you see the nearing of the day” Hebrews 10:25 ---“for in a
short while, He that will come will come and will not delay” Hebrews 10:37 Actually
Hebrews 12:25-29 is the key to understand the sentences above. There will be
two eras: I and II. In I He spoke on earth and it shook and in II He is going
to speak from Heaven and both earth and heaven is going to shake.
What does it
mean?
Two Eschatons I Eschaton
of the Kingdom of Grace which was the last part of the 490 years of Daniel
coming to an end in Stephen’s stoning in 34 AD but also highlight in Christ
dying on the cross in 31 AD and baptized in 27 AD to speak to us as Paul is
saying in Hebrews 1:2-3.
II Then there
is also a future Eschaton of the Kingdom of Glory that is still at
large. The 1260 years had to pass 1798, the 2300 years had to pass 1844. Only
then living in the end of times or the last days, only then those who live then
should be “the more so as you [living after 1798 and 1844] see the nearing of
the day [eschaton of the kingdom of glory]”. Not Paul, not his readers in his
own day but us living after 1798 and 1844.
Notice that
Paul is citing Habakkuk 2:2-3 in Hebrews 10:37-38 and also Isaiah 26:20. This
is a footnote of Paul for those who would live at the end of times after 1798
and 1844. That is what Habakkuk also had in mind. It was a special vision says
the text in Habakkuk 2. It had to be an empire after the Holy Roman Empire that
ended in 1798 and that empire was since 1776 the USA and its allies.